Question ID: #518
Let $y=y(x)$ be the solution of the differential equation
$\cos x(\ln(\cos x))^2 dy + (\sin x – 3y(\sin x)\ln(\cos x))dx = 0, \quad x \in (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$
If $y(\frac{\pi}{4}) = \frac{-1}{\ln 2}$, then $y(\frac{\pi}{6})$ is:
- (1) $\frac{2}{\ln 3 – \ln 4}$
- (2) $\frac{1}{\ln 4 – \ln 3}$
- (3) $-\frac{1}{\ln 4}$
- (4) $\frac{1}{\ln 3 – \ln 4}$
Solution:
Rearrange the given equation into the standard linear form $\frac{dy}{dx} + Py = Q$.
$\cos x(\ln(\cos x))^2 \frac{dy}{dx} – 3y \sin x \ln(\cos x) = -\sin x$
Divide the entire equation by $\cos x(\ln(\cos x))^2$:
$\frac{dy}{dx} – \frac{3\sin x}{\cos x \ln(\cos x)}y = \frac{-\sin x}{\cos x (\ln(\cos x))^2}$
$\frac{dy}{dx} – \frac{3\tan x}{\ln(\cos x)}y = \frac{-\tan x}{(\ln(\cos x))^2}$
Use the property $\ln(\cos x) = -\ln(\sec x)$ to simplify signs:
$\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{3\tan x}{\ln(\sec x)}y = \frac{-\tan x}{(\ln(\sec x))^2}$
Now, find the Integrating Factor (I.F.):
$\text{I.F.} = e^{\int \frac{3\tan x}{\ln(\sec x)} dx}$
Let $t = \ln(\sec x) \Rightarrow dt = \tan x dx$.
$\text{I.F.} = e^{\int \frac{3}{t} dt} = e^{3\ln t} = t^3 = (\ln(\sec x))^3$
The general solution is $y \cdot (\text{I.F.}) = \int Q \cdot (\text{I.F.}) dx + C$:
$y (\ln(\sec x))^3 = \int \frac{-\tan x}{(\ln(\sec x))^2} \cdot (\ln(\sec x))^3 dx$
$y (\ln(\sec x))^3 = \int -\tan x \ln(\sec x) dx$
Substitute $t = \ln(\sec x)$ again ($dt = \tan x dx$):
$y (\ln(\sec x))^3 = \int -t dt = \frac{-t^2}{2} + C$
$y (\ln(\sec x))^3 = \frac{-1}{2}(\ln(\sec x))^2 + C$
Apply condition $y(\frac{\pi}{4}) = \frac{-1}{\ln 2}$. Note that $\ln(\sec \frac{\pi}{4}) = \ln(\sqrt{2}) = \frac{1}{2}\ln 2$.
$\left(\frac{-1}{\ln 2}\right) \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln 2\right)^3 = \frac{-1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln 2\right)^2 + C$
$\frac{-1}{8}(\ln 2)^2 = \frac{-1}{8}(\ln 2)^2 + C \Rightarrow C = 0$
So, the solution simplifies to:
$y (\ln(\sec x))^3 = \frac{-1}{2}(\ln(\sec x))^2 \Rightarrow y = \frac{-1}{2\ln(\sec x)} = \frac{1}{2\ln(\cos x)}$
Now find $y(\frac{\pi}{6})$ where $\cos \frac{\pi}{6} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$:
$y\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right) = \frac{1}{2 \ln(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})} = \frac{1}{2 (\ln \sqrt{3} – \ln 2)}$
$y\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right) = \frac{1}{\ln 3 – 2\ln 2} = \frac{1}{\ln 3 – \ln 4}$
Ans. (4)
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